subdomain authority??
Barry Margolin
barmar at alum.mit.edu
Thu Dec 22 19:47:57 UTC 2005
In article <doebu7$15ct$1 at sf1.isc.org>,
"TIM MOORE" <MOORET10 at odjfs.state.oh.us> wrote:
> This might be a simple question, I just haven't found the answer looking
> through the archives. I want to know if I can be authoritative for a
> subdomain (eg. child.example.com) and still send requests for the parent
> domain to a specific external server (example.com).
That's what happens by default. A server responds authoritatively for
any zones it's authoritative for, and recurses for everything else.
> We currently run
> DNS completely internal to the internet and I would like to be
> authoritative for a subdomain and still have the requests for the parent
> domain go to a public DNS server. How would I do the config? Would I
> use a foward statement specifically for the parent domain, or would
> requests naturally go to our fowarder because we do not have the
> parent?
They'll naturally go to your forwarder. Isn't this what happens when a
server is authoritative for example.com and someone asks for
somethingelse.com? Is there any difference between this and being
authoritative for child.example.com and processing requests for
example.com?
--
Barry Margolin, barmar at alum.mit.edu
Arlington, MA
*** PLEASE post questions in newsgroups, not directly to me ***
*** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group ***
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