Confused on how to setup BIND correctly
Barry Margolin
barmar at alum.mit.edu
Sat May 1 20:54:33 UTC 2004
In article <c70v4h$6n9$1 at sf1.isc.org>,
Jason <jwilliams at courtesymortgage.com> wrote:
> Hello everyone.
>
> Well, I think im confusing myself more than anything else at this point.
> Thought i'd call in for some reinforcements.
>
> Here is what im attempting to do.
>
> Our ISP currently hosts our DNS record for our domain. I would like that
> to continue for the time being. Now, in the meantime, I setup a BIND 9.2
> server that is only being used by our internal network to serve up
> private address that are only accessible by our LAN. Here is an example
> of how users access our private web servers (address wise)
>
> webserver1.internal.mydomain.com
>
> What I would like to do, if possible, is remove the 'internal' part of
> the name so they would only need to use:
>
> webserver1.mydomain.com
>
> Yet, this IP address would not be publicly available.
> Also, if my users query mydomain.com, they answer would be pulled from
> our ISP's DNS server, not our private DNS server.
To do this, you would have to make separate zones for each internal
hostname:
zone "webserver1.mydomain.com" {
type master;
file "webserver.db";
};
zone "someothername.mydomain.com" {
type master;
file "someothername.db";
};
and do on.
> I may incorrect in this method, and if I am, please let me know. If
> there is a better way, I am all ears.
The usual solutions are either to use a different domain, as you
currently do, or replicate the public entries on your internal DNS
rather than pulling them from the ISP's DNS server.
--
Barry Margolin, barmar at alum.mit.edu
Arlington, MA
*** PLEASE post questions in newsgroups, not directly to me ***
More information about the bind-users
mailing list