Reverse DNS record for my webhost

Grant Taylor gtaylor at tnetconsulting.net
Tue Aug 7 04:36:44 UTC 2018


On 08/06/2018 08:29 PM, A wrote:
> I have a VPS and requested my webhost to fix reverse DNS for my domain & 
> IP.  They responded by telling me to provide them with the records I want.
> 
> I found the following response to someone's question on the *Net*:
> 
>         Many ISPs will put in CNAME records with values that have a
>         subdomain you DO control.
>         so they have 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. (one of "your" addresses) as
>         "IN CNAME 4-3-2-1.yourdomain.com".
>         Then you go into "your domain.com" and add
>         4-3-2-1 IN PTR foohost.example.com
>         So you can change your PTRs, and the world finds them via your
>         ISP's CNAMEs.
> 
> And I thought that seemed a good way to go.  But I don't want to play 
> guessing games with my webhost as to the right record(s) and want to 
> confirm my guesses (and the above statement) with you experts before 
> casting it in concrete (or worse, having to repeatedly redo it to get it 
> right).  In particular, he states:

That sounds like Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation.  Check out RFC 2317.

Link - Classless IN-ADDR.ARPA delegation
  - https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2317

They would really set up the 4.3.2.1.in-addr.arpa. as a CNAME to 
<something>.<yourdomainname>.

Then you set up a PTR record for <something>.<yourdomainname> that 
resolves to the name that you want reverse DNS for 1.2.3.4 to resolve to.

> Just to be clear I have multiple subdomains/CNAMEs, but just one IP 
> address.  I plan to run multiple apache vhosts on my VSP and single IP.

That may be problematic.  Either you're going to end up publishing 
multiple records for <something>.<yourdomainname> -or- the IP address 
will reverse resolve to one FQDN.

I prefer the second route, and make all the vanity domain names be 
CNAMEs to the single name that the IP reverse resolves to.

> Thanks in advance!

:-)



-- 
Grant. . . .
unix || die

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