Confused on how to setup BIND correctly

[Barry Margolin]

In article <c70v4h$6n9$1 at sf1.isc.org>,
 Jason <jwilliams at courtesymortgage.com> wrote:

> Hello everyone.
> 
> Well, I think im confusing myself more than anything else at this point. 
>   Thought i'd call in for some reinforcements.
> 
> Here is what im attempting to do.
> 
> Our ISP currently hosts our DNS record for our domain. I would like that 
> to continue for the time being. Now, in the meantime, I setup a BIND 9.2 
> server that is only being used by our internal network to serve up 
> private address that are only accessible by our LAN. Here is an example 
> of how users access our private web servers (address wise)
> 
> webserver1.internal.mydomain.com
> 
> What I would like to do, if possible, is remove the 'internal' part of 
> the name so they would only need to use:
> 
> webserver1.mydomain.com
> 
> Yet, this IP address would not be publicly available.
> Also, if my users query mydomain.com, they answer would be pulled from 
> our ISP's DNS server, not our private DNS server.

To do this, you would have to make separate zones for each internal 
hostname:

zone "webserver1.mydomain.com" {
  type master;
  file "webserver.db";
};
zone "someothername.mydomain.com" {
  type master;
  file "someothername.db";
};
and do on.

> I may incorrect in this method, and if I am, please let me know. If 
> there is a better way, I am all ears.

The usual solutions are either to use a different domain, as you 
currently do, or replicate the public entries on your internal DNS 
rather than pulling them from the ISP's DNS server.

-- 
Barry Margolin, barmar at alum.mit.edu
Arlington, MA
*** PLEASE post questions in newsgroups, not directly to me ***