What is wrong with this?

Kevin Darcy kcd at daimlerchrysler.com
Wed Jun 6 19:47:10 UTC 2001


Yes. But you may have to make a choice about where to point the reverse records.


- Kevin

Peter Apockotos wrote:

> So then it is ok to give the same IP addresses that the testdomain.com has
> to the testdomain.net ?
>
> on 06/06/2001 01:34 AM, Mark.Andrews at nominum.com at Mark.Andrews at nominum.com
> wrote:
>
> >
> >>
> >> on 06/05/2001 10:50 PM, Kevin Darcy at kcd at daimlerchrysler.com wrote:
> >>
> >>>
> >>> You can't. The most you can do is make testdomain.net resolve to the same
> >>> IP address as testdomain.com resolves to, by creating a testdomain.net A
> >>> record
> >>> with the same RDATA aka right-hand-side contents. You can't "alias" a
> >>> registered
> >>> domain to some other registered domain. That doesn't even make sense. It wo
> >> uld
> >>> essentially orphan all of the entries underneath the "aliased" domain name
> >>> (e.g.
> >>> if example.com is "aliased" to foo.com, then www.example.com goes into some
> >>> sort
> >>> of limbo).
> >>
> >>
> >> Well let's say it is bob.net and I want it to go to bob.com and I do not
> >> care about other services since a record like
> >> bob.net. IN MX 10 mail.bob.com. takes care of this need for an MX record.  I
> >> am confused because before BIND I was using QuickDNS Pro and the approach
> >> that I had taken before worked well but it brakes in BIND
> >
> > You just think it worked well.  CNAME at top of zone cause
> > all sorts of breakages.
> >
> > Mark
> > --
> > Mark Andrews, Nominum Inc.
> > 1 Seymour St., Dundas Valley, NSW 2117, Australia
> > PHONE: +61 2 9871 4742                 INTERNET: Mark.Andrews at nominum.com





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