FQDN's and mail MX's

[Ray Bush]

Actually no i dont think i do.  Perhaps  i was using FQDN as meaning mathing
forward and reverse entries.  Perhaps this is improper use of the term or my
context was ambiguous?

What i intended  was where there is a name for a particular ip which  not the
same name as the MX name ..

ie 2 A records for an address only one PTR  but the one used for the mx is
not the same as the PTR record.

Will there be problems for the mailers handling addresses involving the
domain or host?

My cowerker is argueing that the host only need have one FQDN for the host
and that it need not be the same as the name used for the MX record. neither
1034 or 1035 are clear on this matter to him.  My concern being that the end
user is not setting up their host using the name in the PTR record but the
name used in the MX record (which does have a corresponding A record with the
same IP as the PTR record).

Thor Kottelin wrote:

> Ray Bush wrote:
>
> > Should (as in does it
> > need to be) mail mx's be fully qualified domain names?
>
> If you mean EXCHANGE (the rightmost portion of an MX record), yes. If you
> don't explicitly qualify the name in your zone file, the origin will be
> appended.
>
> IOW...
>
> $ORIGIN example.com.
> @       MX      10      pop
>
> equals:
>
> $ORIGIN example.com.
> @       MX      10      pop.example.com.
>
> Thor
>
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