Reverse mapping question

[shh at tamu.edu]

Well, I've been reading all that I can find on running a DNS on Linux.
I'm still a little confused about the reverse mapping.  It seems that
somehow, my ISP has to tell in-addr.arpa (I think) that they are no
longer in charge of DNS for my IP address.  Is that correct?

I guess my question is really this.  In the near future, I'd like to
host my own domain, and provide DNS services for it.  Does my ISP have
to do anything in order for me to use my IP address for such a purpose?

Thanks,
Steve